er.... this is all supposing he had it in the first place..... which I think was a desperate attempt of his family here in the UK to forestall his execution, by trying to gain a sympathy vote...... Question: why the hell was he living "homeless" in Poland, if he had a mental disorder, and his family, and better mental health care, could have been provided in the UK, as opposed to Poland? seems to me that everybody should leave the Bipolar disorder out of the equation...as there was NO evidence of it, in his medical records....unless his family can officially provide it!